The New York Times recently reported on a movement by the California State Legislature to amend California Code of Civil Procedure (“CCP”) §580b.  (See “Battles in California over Mortgages.”) For those of you who’ve been following along, CCP §580b is the California statute that prohibits a mortgage lender from obtaining a deficiency judgment on any loan that was used to purchase or construct a residence.   Such loans are referred to in the law as “purchase money loans.”  I have posted about this a couple of times (See posts:  California anti-deficiency rules and statutes: When can a mortgage lender in California recover a deficiency after foreclosure? and Second Mortgages in California: Deficiencies Not Usually an Issue), and it is a very important statute for California homeowners.

On June 3, 2010, the California Senate passed, by a convincing margin of 30 to 4, Senate Bill 1178 which extends the protections of CCP §580b to any loan taken out to refinance a purchase money loan, up to the amount of the original purchase money loan which is refi’d.  Here’s how that works:  I take out a loan for $500,000 which I use to buy my home.  A few years later, I refinance that loan with a new loan for $700,000, $500k of which goes to take out the original purchase money loan, and the other $200k of which I use for other purposes.  Under existing law, because the new loan is no longer a “purchase money loan,” but is a refi of a purchase money loan, I would not be protected against possible personal recourse by the lender if it foreclosed and did not recover enough on the sale of the residence to pay off the whole loan.  Under the new law–if it passes the California State Assembly–I would still be protected on the refinance loan up to the amount of the original purchase money loan that was refinanced, or in my hypothetical, $50ok.  That would leave me exposed on the balance in excess of that refinanced amount.  In my hypothetical, up to $200k.

Do we care?  Well, maybe some day someone will, but I doubt it.

As usual, the press gets it all muddled up, and everyone jumps on the band wagon to shout about “consumer protections.”  It’s actually somewhat comical.  If you Google “SB 1178 California” you get a whole raft of folks nattering about the great “consumer protections” it offers.  But if you know anything at all about how the economics and law of foreclosure in California actually work in day-to-day reality, a little reflection shows that it doesn’t do anything of the sort.

As a Bay Area real estate and bankruptcy lawyer who lives on the front lines–representing both lenders and borrowers–in these sorts of disputes every day, I’ll go way out on a limb here, and say with confidence, and in my most stentorian tone of voice, that this is a bunch of hogwash.  More political window dressing in the face of a crippling inability to do anything meaningful at all.  It’s not going to solve a single one of the problems facing California’s real estate industry today, and in practice, its benefits–if any–will be limited to an extremely small group of people who have more money than brains. The investor who made a wrong bet, but who can still afford to pay their debts.  (Which, ironically, is the precise subset that everyone who’s anyone in this debacle–from Hank Paulson to Bernard Bernanke to George Bush to the Barrack Obama–has steadfastly maintained they have no desire to help.  But I digress.)  Legally and economically, this is a red herring brought to you by a band of legislators who are largely powerless to do much more than wave their arms in sturm und drang trying to demonstrate to an increasing angry constituency that they are doing something.

Here’s why this thing is meaningless:

First, in order for this hypothetical to be a real problem, the lender would have to file an action for judicial foreclosure, because under the provisions of CCP §580d, no deficiency is available to a lender who forecloses by trustees sale.  If the foreclosing lender has availed itself of the “power of sale clause” in the deed of trust, then no deficiency is allowed. Period, done finished, end of story. That’s what CCP §580d is all about.  It doesn’t matter what the money was used for, how it was obtained, from whom, etc.  No lawsuit, no deficiency.  (A trustee’s sale is when they sell the property by auction on the Courthouse steps, and a judicial foreclosure is when they file a lawsuit in Superior Court seeking a judicial decree of foreclosure and money judgment.)

Second, the California real estate market continues to slog along the bottom of the river, which means that there are very few loans where the bank is going to be interested enough in the borrower to actually spend the time and money to chase a debtor on one of these.  The costs of foreclosure are already sky-high, (found by a Joint US Congressional Economic Committee to approach an average of $80,000 (!!!), see Joint Congressional Economic Committee Report on Foreclosure Costs), and the added costs and uncertainties of trying to pursue a deficiency on a mortgage balance in a court only adds more time, expense and uncertainty. Banks–and the regulators who regulate them–hate time, expense and uncertainty when it has to do with a non-performing loan.

The fact is that most lenders are not going to spend the money to launch a judicial foreclosure on a generic breach of contract claim. Which is what this foofaraw is all about.  When a borrower defaults on a promissory note by not paying it back it is just a simple, no-brainer breach of contract claim. Mortgage lenders in this sort of hypothetical don’t sue for that. Why?  Because it’s a colossal, herculean, humongous and uncertain waste of time and money.  And why is that?  Because the person they’re chasing either doesn’t have the money to pay them back–which is why they’re not paying in the first place–which means that if they actually get a judgment it will be an uncollectible judgment, i.e., a meaningless wallpaper, and…And here’s the big one, a generic breach of contract claim on a promissory note is completely dischargeable in bankruptcy. The lender can chase the borrower all the way to judgment and the borrower can still squirt out by filing a simple $299 Chapter 7 petition.

The person that they will sue, however, is the scam artist who got the loan by fraudulent means, and there is nothing at all in the revised CCP §580b that is going to protect that scam artist from the consequences of their fraud.

So who is this new and improved law going to help?  Here’s the profile: He/she is a borrower who doesn’t want to pay the loan back even though he/she has the money to do so. Further, they’re willing to spend this money that he doesn’t want to spend to avoid the foreclosure to finance litigation. Oh yeah, and one more data point.  The National Consumer Law Center recently published a report on average hourly rates for experienced consumer law attorneys, experienced being defined as those with 20 to 30 years experience.  Me and my colleagues in other words. (See NCLC United States Consumer Law Attorney Fee Survey)  The result? $460 to $475 per hour. So this hypothetical borrower doesn’t want to pay his loan, but he’s willing to pay me or my colleagues $475 an hour to litigate this issue.  Total likely fees? $50,000 to $100,000 at those rates. Where is this idiot?

So the new and improved CCP 580b is a pointless public relations stunt, and any blogger, journalist, banker, lawyer, real estate agent or politician who tells you otherwise is a well-intended liar or, more likely, just doesn’t know what they’re talking about. I suspect what they’ll say in response to me, however, is that removing this threat removes a negotiating plank–the threat of a lawsuit–from the lenders’ arsenal.

Last, the new law, if it passes, is likely only to apply to loans made after June 1, 2011.

Stay tuned.

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60 Minutes Segment on Strategic Defaults

On May 9, 2010, the CBS news magazine show 60 Minutes did a segment on strategic defaults. Nothing new here, but when 60 Minutes gets its hands on something you never know where it’s going to go.

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Redwood Trust has announced that it recently sold a $222 million bond backed by jumbo mortgages.

Why do we care? Because since sometime in late, 2007, the jumbo market has been largely seized, with liquidity limited only to what could be sold to Fannie Mae and Freddie Mac.  But those two are limited to mortgages of less than $730,000, which means that lending liquidity for the so-called “jumbo product” has ben almost non-existent.  With median home prices in Marin County (usually) well above that amount, this has meant that financing for a significant chunk of the Marin market has been scarce as well.

Hopefully, this news is a harbinger of good things to come in the upper end of the Marin and other Bay Area markets.

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Okay, so I was just about to draft a blog post on the new Federal loan modification/Housing Program Enhancements program that was announced today, when the NY Times blog “Bucks” scooped me.  Ron Lieber and Jennifer Saranow Schultz have done a very good job hitting most of the big questions, and have done better than I probably would have…and without the legal mumbo jumbo.  Follow the link above to read the original.  It would not be proper for me to reprint it here without permission.


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It’s official: Banks decide to “muddle along.”

In a blog post on Planet Money titled The Latest Loan Modification: Don’t Get Your Hopes Up NPR is reporting today that Bank of America has decided that it will be cheaper and easier to reduce principal rather than interest on “severely under water loans.”  Oh. B of A is saying that this new strategy could apply to as many as 45,000 loans, including some of the “exotic time bombs” it inherited when it acquired Countrywide Home Loans last year.

I’m not sure this is really news. As Chris Mayer, the Milstein Professor of Real Estate at Columbia University’s business school is quoted as saying, ”they’re just stating the obvious, which is that they’re not going to get paid back in full.”  Professor Mayer goes on to editorialize.”There is no great solution,” Mayer is reported as saying.  ”We’re going to muddle along.”

Terrific.

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In a couple of other places in this blog I have discussed various components of California’s mortgage anti-deficiency laws. (See California Mortgage Deficiencies: What is a Purchase Money Security Interest? and Second Mortgages in California: Deficiencies Not Usually an Issue.)  This post will put it all in one place. At least the five basic rules.

I can’t warn readers enough, however, that these are very, very complex issues. I have–quite intentionally–over simplified them here, and I have done this to provide a precis on the big picture.  The case law interpreting the applicable statutes occupies volumes in California lawyers’ offices, and there are still many legal issues and questions that are unsettled.  So please go easy if I don’t answer your specific question here.  There is no way I can address all of the issues in one post, so if you have a specific question, please, post it in the comment section so everyone can see it, and I’ll do my best to answer it. But if you think you have a deficiency problem, or a possible exposure to a deficiency judgment, you really owe it to yourself to see an attorney who understands these issues. Also, bear in mind that the rules vary from state to state, so if you are reading this post with a real estate problem in any place other than California, you can be sure that the rules applicable to your situation are not the same.

First, what is a deficiency? Simply stated, a deficiency is what is left owed to a lender after the lenders forecloses and takes the real estate back. Example: If I owe $200,000, and the property is only worth $150,000 there is a so-called “deficiency” of $50,000. When can the lender come after the borrower for that “deficiency?”  That is the subject of this post. And, of course, in the current economy, a lot of people are trying to figure this out.

In California, there are four primary rules that apply. I discuss them below in no particular order.

1.  The One Action Rule. CCP §726(a).

The One Form of Action Rule basically says that the lender is required to chase the collateral first, and the debtor second…if it still can. A long, long time ago, a foreclosing lender could choose whether to foreclose on the collateral or go after the borrower personally for a money judgment. The one action rule of CCP §726(a) says that the lender must go after the collateral first, and, if it is legally possible, go after the borrower personally for any deficiency after that. Whether that is possible will depend on how the other rules set forth below kick in and apply to protect the borrower. But if you get sued on a promissory note and the lender is not a “sold out junior” nor taken hasn’t taken steps to foreclosure on the collateral, this rule would apply.

(I use the term “sold out junior quite a bit in this post. A sold out junior lienholder is the holder of a deed of trust that is junior to the first lienholder, and who has been denied a recovery due either to the foreclosure by the first lienholder, or because there isn’t enpugh value in the property to satisfy the junior debt after satisfaction of the senior debt. It is common for people to refer to such debts as “HELOCS,” but this isn’t technically accurate. A HELOC is simple a “home equity line of credit” that is secured by the subject property. It may be the most senior debt on the property or it may be a second, third…or tenth lien in order of its seniority. “HELOC” is a banking term; “sold out junior lienholder” is a legal term of art.)

2.   The Purchase Money Prohibition:  CCP §580b.

This is the best known rule and the one that applies more often than the others. If the loan that is being foreclosed on is a loan that was obtained for the purpose of purchasing the property, then no deficiency is allowed. It doesn’t matter if it’s a first, second or third.  It doesn’t matter if it’s classified as a “HELOC,” a “seller carry back,” or, ultimately, a “sold out junior.” Purchase money is purchase money. Example: Homeowner buys a house for $300,000, with a first for $200, and a second for $60,000, both put on the property at the time of acquisition. If the first forecloses, both lenders are barred from getting a deficiency because both loans are classified as “purchase money.” However, where the borrower has refinanced the original purchase money loan, or got a later home equity loan, that later loan is not a purchase money loan and could form the basis for a deficiency if the other anti-deficiency rules don’t otherwise apply.

But there is an exception to the exception: If the later loan was used to finance improvements to the property, then it can be a purchase money loan, and thus be a bar to a deficiency.

3.  The Non-Judicial Foreclosure, or “Private Sale Bar”:  CCP §580d.

This is the next most frequent rule. If the foreclosing lender has availed itself of the “power of sale clause” in the deed of trust, then no deficiency is allowed. Period. If they take the property back by means of a non-judicial foreclosure or trustee’s sale, then no deficiency. But unless one lender holds both loans, that only applies to the loan actually foreclosed on. Using the above hypothetical figures, though in this case making the second a non-purchase money loan, when the first forecloses, the holder of the first foreclosing loan is barred from seeking a deficiency both (1) Because it is purchase money, and (2) Because it has foreclosed by trustee’s sale. But the second, not being purchase money, and not being the one who foreclosed by non-judicial sale but having been wiped out by the foreclosure of the first, is not barred from pursuing a deficiency. In fact, in California, they have up to four years from the date of the breach of the contract to file a lawsuit seeking that deficiency.

And of course, as noted, there is an exception to the exception: If the holder of the first and the holder of the second are the same lender, and that entity forecloses on the first, it is also barred from seeking a deficiency on the second. This is important in California where lenders sometimes “stack” loans in order to get to a loan amount high enough to cover the high property values. It is also important to think about when the loans may have been sold to different lenders.

(On a historical note, CCP §580d was passed in light of the foreclosures and abusive deficiency judgments obtained by lenders during the Great Depression.  What we’re going through now is similar in many respects, though the ability of lenders to take the property and then chase the borrower who is already out of their home is limited by the passage of that statute. Small solace, to be sure, but it at least is doing what it was intended to do.)

4.  The fair Value Limitation: CCP 580aCCP §726(b).

This rule limits the amount of any possible deficiency to the amount by which the total debt exceeds the total fair value of the collateral. It only applies to deficiency judgments in judicial foreclosures, and, most importantly, it does not apply at all to sold out junior lienholders. Example: First mortgage of $450,000, and a second for $150,000, for total liens of $600,000. If the holder of the first forecloses and, it can be shown first at the time the first forecloses it can be shown that the property is only worth $400,000, then the foreclosing lienholder–on return to court seeking a deficiency–is limited to $50,000, regardless of what they sold the property for.  So if they pay a commission of 6% ($24,000, and additional closing costs of $5,000, that $29,000 is generally barred.  As for the holder of the $150,000 second? They can still come after the borrower for full payment, assuming, of course, such an action isn’t barred by one or the other of the above rules.

5.  The 3 Month Rule: CCP §580a.

This rule applies only in the case of judicial foreclosures. What’s that? Literally, it is a lawsuit in which the lender obtains a “decree of foreclosure” from a court–by definition not using the trustee’s sale procedure–and is unable to be made whole from the sale of the property. Example: Loan balance of $500,000. Lender obtains a “decree of foreclosure” from a court, after which it then goes out and sells the property for $400,000. In order to get a recourse judgment against the borrower for the $100,000 shortfall, that creditor must bring an action within 3 months of the sale date or it is barred.  An important carve out on this rule is that the 3-month limit does not apply to a sold out junior lienholder, the holder of the second in the above scenarios.

It is highly doubtful that you will have to deal with this rule without being fully aware of the issue steaming down the tracks towards you, simply because it can only happen in a judicial foreclosure. A lawsuit. As to whether or not you’ve been sued, well, you should know it. But check out my prior post Second Mortgages in California: Deficiencies Not Usually an Issue I referred to in my first paragraph above if you’re not sure.

As David Letterman would say, “please don’t try this at home,” by which I mean simply that if you are concerned that you may have a deficiency exposure, call a lawyer. A real estate lawyer, not a family lawyer, a personal injury lawyer or your Grandma Tilly’s trust and estates lawyer. This can be complicated stuff.

And last, of course, if the debt is discharged in bankruptcy, there is no deficiency at all. But that’s another post altogether.

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What is an “as is” sale of real estate?

Like everyone else, when I’m reading the various ads in the real estate section, I see quite a few ads for properties being sold “as is.” The suggestion behind this phrase seems to be that this little two-word phrase absolves the seller (and the listing broker) from any responsibility or liability for existing physical defects with the property, or for the need to tell the buyer that certain things that might go awry somewhere down the line. As though it’s a legally sanctioned form of the old “caveat emptor,” or “buyer beware,” which basically puts all of the due diligence job on the buyer. While there is a (very) small grain of truth to this, it is by no means a blanket absolution for a seller regarding known defects.

So then what does this “as is” designation really mean? Resisting, of course, the flippant philosophical observation that almost everything in this world is sold “as is,” as opposed to “as it is not” or “as it might be if all our dreams and fantasies came true.”

California law requires that a seller of real property disclose in writing all conditions and problems that the seller knows or should know to exist. The means by which this is customarily accomplished is through a document called a Real Estate Transfer Disclosure Statement. As far as a seller’s disclosure duties, this is where the rubber hits the road. For those readers who like to read the actual statutes, the language and scope of this disclosure requirement is set forth in California Civil Code section 1102.1. This is a written disclosure, the format of which is specified by law, which requires a seller to go through an exhaustive list of attributes and characteristics and state whether there are any known problems, past, present or reasonably likely to occur in the future.

An “as is” clause does NOT exonerate the seller from the obligation to provide the Civil Code 1102 written disclosures to the prospective buyer, nor from the obligation to disclose known conditions that would affect the purchasing decision of the reasonable purchaser. Also covered are problems that a seller “should” know to exist. What does this mean? It means that even though the seller may not have set foot on the property for 15 years and thus have no idea that the floor boards are rotting to the core, if he or she “should know” that such problems exist, they must be disclosed. Intentionally blind eyes are no excuse.

From the buyer’s side, legally, all an “as is” clause does is put the buyer on notice that the sale is made without warranty, and that the property is accepted in the condition as it appears to a reasonably diligent inspection. As a matter of sound business practice, however, an “as is” clause should alert a prospective purchaser to the possibility of problems and the realization that your inspections should be extra diligent.

So, an “as is” clause is not an “anything goes” pass that allows a seller to dodge disclosure requirements. It is, however, a flag for the buyer that she should look extra carefully because there may be problems of neglect or inattention that a “reasonable inspection” will discover.

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Okay, so misinformation and confusion about the tax implications of foreclosure arising from the cancellation of debt seems to be piling up.  In particular, folks seem most confused by the receipt of Form 1099-A from lenders who have taken property back in foreclosure.

First, remember the basic principle:  Cancellation of debt MAY result in taxable ordinary income.

Second, because a foreclosure is viewed as a “sale of property,” if you let real estate go in foreclosure and it results in a cancellation of debt, then that foreclosure may be a taxable event.

There are three exceptions:

1.   First, if the property lost in foreclosure is a principal residence–literally the home in which you live–then the cancellation of the debt (“COD”) generally won’t be taxable.  This is a result of the Mortgage Forgiveness Debt Relief Act of 2007.

2.  Second, if your are “insolvent” at the time that the debt is cancelled (not at the time of the foreclosure, but more on this below) then you will not be taxed. Insolvency is a simple balance sheet test: If your liabilities exceed your assets, you are insolvent. Don’t over think it. You will have to submit IRS Form 982 with the tax return in the applicable year in order to demonstrate that insolvency.

3.  Third, if the debt is cancelled as a result of a bankruptcy filing, then there is also no tax. (This is one of the reasons I call bankruptcy “the ultimate mortgage modification tool.”)

(Follow the “more” tag below for the rest of this article…The really good stuff.)

(more…)

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Another way to look at a foreclosure

I don’t mean to sound like a scold here, but I do think someone needs to point something out.  Here’s a story published today by NPR called “Walking One Block Damaged by the Housing Crisis.” It talks about a homeowner in Riverside County who has refinanced eight times, and who now owes about $300,000 on a house worth about $80,000.

In all of the “sturm und drang” over the foreclosure problem, it seems that a reality check may be in order now and then:  And that is that this homeowner has apparently pulled a couple hundred thousand out of a house that is now worth $80k. What does that mean?  Effectively, that means that the house has already been sold, and that it was sold to the bank at the top of the market.  Now it’s time to move.  Yes, it is true that an unfortunate byproduct of selling the house in this strange way–by refinancing it, withdrawing all of the equity out of it at the lender’s expense and walking away at the bottom of the market–is not exactly how the homeowner envisioned the sale, and that this unorthodox “sale” will cause the homeowner to take an embarrassing hit to his/her credit profile.  But from an economic perspective, they haven’t lost any money.  They got in at the bottom, rode it to the top, cashed out, and then rode it back down.  And by the time of the foreclosure sale, they will probably have been able to live rent free for several months.

I don’t offer this as a palliative nor as some sort of finger wagging exercise.  But economically, good intentions and simple math don’t always answer the hard questions.  And they’re also notoriously unreliable in handicapping the moral high ground or identifying easy villains.  Just because someone has to move, and just because they have to move when it’s inconvenient and at the business end of legal action, doesn’t mean they’re victims. It’s not that simple. The problems we face in our economy are vastly more complex than mainstream media would have you believe.

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Quitclaim Deeds, Mortgages and Bankruptcy

I frequently hear from clients and prospective clients telling me that they have “rearranged” their financial affairs through the use of so-called “quitclaim deeds” or other contractual mechanisms by which title to property–and by extension–liability for a mortgage, is transferred.  The most common appearance of this tends to be in the marital dissolution and property settlement context, where two divorcing spouses have divided the marital assets by “giving” property to each other, and one or the other has “assumed” liability for the mortgage. In concept this is a great idea.  In reality, however, if there is a mortgage, it’s not all that useful.  In fact, it is usually pointless.

This is simply because the lender’s rights are fixed as of the time of execution of the loan documentation, and the borrower can’t get out from under a repayment obligation simply by deeding the property to someone else. I won’t bore you with the legal language that is usually contained in the deed of trust, but suffice to say that, once on a loan, always on a loan until the loan is repaid or the lender specifically releases the borrower from the liability. Further, as a general legal principle, the loan obligation follows the property no matter who is on title.

An example might be in the case where the family owns two houses, a primary residence and a rental property, both of which are subject to mortgages, and both of which have both spouses’ names on title.  When they divorce, the husband takes one and the wife takes the other as part of the marital property settlement. That’s great as long as the mortgages are being repaid. But if one of the parties gets into financial trouble, it will not be possible to inoculate the other from the consequences of a bankruptcy or default, because both parties are on the loans. Once on a loan, always on a loan until the loan is repaid or the lender specifically releases the borrower from the liability.

Of course this doesn’t mean that there aren’t solutions, but the quitclaim deed and assignment without the lenders’ consent are not real solutions.

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